This may sound like a silly question. This is the situation:

I had 1.0.2 unlocked via iUnlock (with an unused IPSF license). Yesterday I reflashed the messed up baseband (but didn't do a full virginize, decided it was easier to just unlock with IPSF 1.6 which cleans up seczone and seems to do a slightly more resilient unlock since it uses an NCK code apparently?).

After several tries, I got the baseband reflash and IPSF upgrade to work (and I do mean several tries - took about 3 hours, but that's neither here nor there).

The weird thing is that I then had a working, IPSF-unlocked 1.0.2. I upgraded to 1.1.1, did the Safari glitch/jailbreak (which is *incorrect* in the sticky thread, by the way - you can't just dial *#307# and answer - you have to dial 0 after than to get the option to answer). Once I figured that the instructions were wrong by looking at some older threads, it was smooth sailing. I ran touchfree without a problem.

Here's the weird thing: I never finished doing all this iAsign/lockdownd stuff. All I did was replace lockdownd with lockdownd1.0.2 and copy over iPhoneActivation.pem and I noticed my phone had a message on it, something about activation being complete? So I decided to play with it a bit and everything is working 100%, EDGE, Wifi, my apps, installer, summerboard, etc. I am loathe to screw around with it further.

Does this mean that it is "factory activated" already? Or do I not need to do those extra activation steps because I used IPSF instead of AnySim? Part of me says "don't worry" and part of me says "you should go back and finish those steps, don't leave your phone in a weird indeterminate state with the incorrect version of lockdownd and a non-matching iPhoneActivation.pem and iPhoneActivation-private.pem.

But none of that crap seems to affect the phone at all - it is just working fine. I've rebooted twice, used it a bunch and it's 100% okay. Including YouTube video, which is working great, and so on. Note - I'm on T-Mobile, so it's not like I'm using an AT&T SIM or anything.

What the hell does all that iAsign stuff and lockdownd stuff do then? And why is my phone working 100% in what ought to be an indeterminate state? Will it suddenly break on me in the future? I am loathe to screw around further when I spent 4 hours reflashing basebands yesterday - just don't want to go through that again.

Thanks for any words of wisdom in advance!

Originally Posted by rcgabriel

This may sound like a silly question. This is the situation:

I had 1.0.2 unlocked via iUnlock (with an unused IPSF license). Yesterday I reflashed the messed up baseband (but didn't do a full virginize, decided it was easier to just unlock with IPSF 1.6 which cleans up seczone and seems to do a slightly more resilient unlock since it uses an NCK code apparently?).

After several tries, I got the baseband reflash and IPSF upgrade to work (and I do mean several tries - took about 3 hours, but that's neither here nor there).

The weird thing is that I then had a working, IPSF-unlocked 1.0.2. I upgraded to 1.1.1, did the Safari glitch/jailbreak (which is *incorrect* in the sticky thread, by the way - you can't just dial *#307# and answer - you have to dial 0 after than to get the option to answer). Once I figured that the instructions were wrong by looking at some older threads, it was smooth sailing. I ran touchfree without a problem.

Here's the weird thing: I never finished doing all this iAsign/lockdownd stuff. All I did was replace lockdownd with lockdownd1.0.2 and copy over iPhoneActivation.pem and I noticed my phone had a message on it, something about activation being complete? So I decided to play with it a bit and everything is working 100%, EDGE, Wifi, my apps, installer, summerboard, etc. I am loathe to screw around with it further.

Does this mean that it is "factory activated" already? Or do I not need to do those extra activation steps because I used IPSF instead of AnySim? Part of me says "don't worry" and part of me says "you should go back and finish those steps, don't leave your phone in a weird indeterminate state with the incorrect version of lockdownd and a non-matching iPhoneActivation.pem and iPhoneActivation-private.pem.

But none of that crap seems to affect the phone at all - it is just working fine. I've rebooted twice, used it a bunch and it's 100% okay. Including YouTube video, which is working great, and so on. Note - I'm on T-Mobile, so it's not like I'm using an AT&T SIM or anything.

What the hell does all that iAsign stuff and lockdownd stuff do then? And why is my phone working 100% in what ought to be an indeterminate state? Will it suddenly break on me in the future? I am loathe to screw around further when I spent 4 hours reflashing basebands yesterday - just don't want to go through that again.

Thanks for any words of wisdom in advance!

factory activated=yes
just make sure you can sync with itunes

fallenczar - I can sync with iTunes just fine, I restored my profile after the 1.1.1 update and I just resynced this morning to verify that everything is working fine.

So because it' "factory activated" I don't need to worry about those steps? Can you point me to a thread or post that explains what that means? And why do the instructions from the sticky thread indicate all those other steps are necessary?

I'm in exactly the same boat as you and would love some explanations! BTW, did you do an "update" or "restore" to get to 1.1.1? I have another phone in the same situation and would be interested in the easiest way forward. Did you also run any "killall" functions when you transferred the 1.02 lockdownd?

Originally Posted by rcgabriel

fallenczar - I can sync with iTunes just fine, I restored my profile after the 1.1.1 update and I just resynced this morning to verify that everything is working fine.

So because it' "factory activated" I don't need to worry about those steps? Can you point me to a thread or post that explains what that means? And why do the instructions from the sticky thread indicate all those other steps are necessary?

till about two days ago no one knew those files were patched :p

http://www.hackint0sh.org/forum/showthread.php?t=11984

Originally Posted by rcgabriel

This may sound like a silly question. This is the situation:

I had 1.0.2 unlocked via iUnlock (with an unused IPSF license). Yesterday I reflashed the messed up baseband (but didn't do a full virginize, decided it was easier to just unlock with IPSF 1.6 which cleans up seczone and seems to do a slightly more resilient unlock since it uses an NCK code apparently?).

After several tries, I got the baseband reflash and IPSF upgrade to work (and I do mean several tries - took about 3 hours, but that's neither here nor there).

The weird thing is that I then had a working, IPSF-unlocked 1.0.2. I upgraded to 1.1.1, did the Safari glitch/jailbreak (which is *incorrect* in the sticky thread, by the way - you can't just dial *#307# and answer - you have to dial 0 after than to get the option to answer). Once I figured that the instructions were wrong by looking at some older threads, it was smooth sailing. I ran touchfree without a problem.

Here's the weird thing: I never finished doing all this iAsign/lockdownd stuff. All I did was replace lockdownd with lockdownd1.0.2 and copy over iPhoneActivation.pem and I noticed my phone had a message on it, something about activation being complete? So I decided to play with it a bit and everything is working 100%, EDGE, Wifi, my apps, installer, summerboard, etc. I am loathe to screw around with it further.

Does this mean that it is "factory activated" already? Or do I not need to do those extra activation steps because I used IPSF instead of AnySim? Part of me says "don't worry" and part of me says "you should go back and finish those steps, don't leave your phone in a weird indeterminate state with the incorrect version of lockdownd and a non-matching iPhoneActivation.pem and iPhoneActivation-private.pem.

But none of that crap seems to affect the phone at all - it is just working fine. I've rebooted twice, used it a bunch and it's 100% okay. Including YouTube video, which is working great, and so on. Note - I'm on T-Mobile, so it's not like I'm using an AT&T SIM or anything.

What the hell does all that iAsign stuff and lockdownd stuff do then? And why is my phone working 100% in what ought to be an indeterminate state? Will it suddenly break on me in the future? I am loathe to screw around further when I spent 4 hours reflashing basebands yesterday - just don't want to go through that again.

Thanks for any words of wisdom in advance!

Admit it publicly the app you used to unlock it the second time around is a superior 1st class one!